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Old 03-20-2010, 01:08 PM   #1 (permalink)
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Originally Posted by Janszoon View Post
I understand the reason for the second link. I'm just saying that even if it proves what he was saying, it doesn't mean very much.
Heh, but that means only a few people in the South were super-racist!

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But they aren't victims at the same rate as whites at all. According to the table you linked to, blacks are far more likely than whites to be victims of violent crime. 47.8% of all victims of violent crime in this country are black despite the fact that they are only 12.8% percent of the population. While 48.2% of all victims of violent crime are white despite the fact that they make up 79.8% of the population. Doesn't that strike you as a huge disparity?
Yes, that strikes me as a huge disparity. So does the fact that blacks commit 36.5% (a plurality) of murders in this country, despite being a minority. And like I already stated, most murders are committed within a race. So, doesn't that mean they are "bringing it upon themselves" so to speak?
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Old 03-20-2010, 01:36 PM   #2 (permalink)
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Heh, but that means only a few people in the South were super-racist!
lol. No it means only a few people in the South were super-rich.

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Originally Posted by Violent & Funky View Post
Yes, that strikes me as a huge disparity. So does the fact that blacks commit 36.5% (a plurality) of murders in this country, despite being a minority. And like I already stated, most murders are committed within a race. So, doesn't that mean they are "bringing it upon themselves" so to speak?
Yes, the numbers of murders committed is also striking. And when one considers whether or not they are "bringing it upon themselves" one has to consider the context in terms of both conviction rates among blacks versus whites for the same crime and the differences in poverty level between the races.
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