Merkaba

So your saying if black people had the power than only black people could be racist? Think about this for a second, a full about swing on your entire argument that only whites can be racist.

Meaning, Michael Richards wouldn't be on the news had he said what he'd said? If blacks had 'power'.

If blacks had power and he'd said what he said, you can't tell me you'd change your argument and say he was now only being prejudiced. Shit no, you'd still argue he was racist no matter who has the 'power'.

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RHYMEFESTkillah

Once again, prejudice is NOT the same as racism because racism is a social institution that can only be put into place by a MAJORITY. Prejudice can be practiced on an individual level be it Black/White, Asian/Black, White/Asian, Asian/White...it doesn't matter who the participating parties are.

I haven't misunderstood the article, and that isn't the only article on the subject. Prejudice is just as wrong as racism is, it's just that racism by definition can only be exerted by a majority. Neither os more right than the other.

Also, you cannot justify one action by saying that there are worse things.

You should probably take a civics class, or perhaps an ethics class, or even a class on institutionalized government.
Obviously you haven't.

If I didn't know the difference between prejudice and racism then yeah, I would probably still argue he was being racist.
Secondly, if blacks had the "power" he wouldn't have said what he said, since the "hanging upside down" or blacks probably wouldn't have happened. If the same situation that black people had faced had in reality been faced by whites during the 1950's and 60's, then yeah, it would simply be prejudice, not racism, since racism needs a power source to be applied. But your hypothetical theory really has no basis since "what if" is usually not a good way to prove a point. Point is, whites weren't oppressed and discriminated against, blacks were. That is institutionalized racism, which is only exerted by whites.

SAY for example that in Pakistan there was a somewhat large population of whites, and rules were instituted which oppressed whites, then it would not be possible (by definition) for whites to be racist in the given situation since RACISM NEEDS POWER.

hiu

According the the Collins dictionary this is the definition of racism.

'racism n 1. belief in innate superiority of particular race 2. antagonism towards members of different race based on this belief.

No mention of power. No mention of only white people/people in power being racist.

In conclusion you're wrong.

RHYMEFESTkillah

According to my article, which is a bit longer than two sentences and has had months of research put into it, you're wrong.
I have a definition written by California Polytechnical University which states EXACTLY what I said.

In conclusion, I'm right.

hiu

I'd trust a dictionary more than an internet article.

swim

Wait where is this article and why is some article superior to the dictionary.

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RHYMEFESTkillah

Oh look, another definition supporting my argument written by a university as well.

swim

Links to the previous mentioned article and where you got that?

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RHYMEFESTkillah

The article is not bullsh*t since it is from a university website.
The other one is from Edchange.org

http://www.edchange.org/

This is a link to the organization, I provided a link to the actual article when I quoted a bit of it a couple pages ago.

jibber

yes it's from a university, but the article is actually an opinion paper, so it has no more credibility than anyone else's opinion on here. I also find it funny that the second example you've given gives no mention to the connection between racism and RACE. That right there sould tell you that whoever wrote the article has gotten far too carried away with their thesis of racism only being applied to those who are not in power.

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