Paedantic Basterd

You've touched on something here that I'd tried to speak about earlier in the thread: If a drunken woman says "yes", the fact that she's drunk may invalidate her consent, however, a drunken man is guilty regardless.

Clearly this is not an equal standard, and I am interested in hearing how we justify it.

EDIT: I apologise if I seem insensitive to your posts, Misspoptart. That's not my intent. If you'd rather I not start this discussion, I'll gladly and respectfully remove my post. Or alternatively, someone has permission to remove it for me if I have gone to work.