The Christianity Thread

[Xurtio]

Originally Posted by Janszoon

It probably wasn't called rape in most languages because most languages are not English. It does occur numerous times in the Bible though so it's interesting that there's nothing in there specifically condemning it.

No, they literally didn't have a word, but they could still describe it:

Originally Posted by Deuteronomy 22:25–27

But if in the open country a man meets a young woman who is betrothed, and the man seizes her and lies with her, then only the man who lay with her shall die. 26 But you shall do nothing to the young woman; she has committed no offense punishable by death. For this case is like that of a man attacking and murdering his neighbor, 27 because he met her in the open country, and though the betrothed young woman cried for help there was no one to rescue her.

But this is where it gets weird... the above woman was "betrothed" (already owned by anther man). If she's not betrothed:

If a man find a damsel that is a virgin, which is not betrothed, and lay hold on her, and lie with her, and they be found; Then the man that lay with her shall give unto the damsel's father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife; because he hath humbled her, he may not put her away all his days.

If she's not betrothed, the man's "punishment" is that he "has" to marry the woman he raped and pay her father... nevermind the punishment this causes to the rape victim...

[The Batlord]

Originally Posted by Xurtio

No, they literally didn't have a word, but they could still describe it:


But this is where it gets weird... the above woman was "betrothed" (already owned by anther man). If she's not betrothed:


If she's not betrothed, the man's "punishment" is that he "has" to marry the woman he raped and pay her father... nevermind the punishment this causes to the rape victim...

My favorite thing about the first quote is that combined with the lines above it (about a woman raped in a city) is that it says that a woman raped in the city is to be executed, whereas a woman raped in the country isn't. Cause, like, a woman raped in the city would have screamed and been saved, so clearly if the rape actually happened then she didn't scream and it was consensual. But a woman in the country could conceivably scream for help without anybody being around to help her.

Victim shaming made into an artform.

[Neapolitan]

Originally Posted by RoxyRollah

Most languages I thought. Right up until the dark ages.Even then I still dont think it was called rape. We can ask the Google. Or the internets....

In Roman law "raptus" meant abducting or kidnapping someone, and "stuprum" was the "sex crime." Both "raptus" and "raptor" come from Latin word meaning seized by force.

The Bible covers almost ever kind sexual act, I'm not sure why some think that rape is not included. Some Jewish scholars believed that Isaac was either raped or sexually abused by Ismael.

[The Batlord]

Originally Posted by Neapolitan

In Roman law "raptus" meant abducting or kidnapping someone, and "stuprum" was the "sex crime." Both "raptus" and "raptor" come from Latin word meaning seized by force.

The Bible covers almost ever kind sexual act, I'm not sure why some think that rape is not included. Some Jewish scholars believed that Isaac was either raped or sexually abused by Ismael.

But does the Bible consider rape wrong for the same reasons we do, or just because it's sex between unmarried people?

[Janszoon]

Originally Posted by Neapolitan

In Roman law "raptus" meant abducting or kidnapping someone, and "stuprum" was the "sex crime." Both "raptus" and "raptor" come from Latin word meaning seized by force.

The Bible covers almost ever kind sexual act, I'm not sure why some think that rape is not included. Some Jewish scholars believed that Isaac was either raped or sexually abused by Ismael.

Can you point out where the Bible says rape is wrong?

[Neapolitan]

Originally Posted by Janszoon

Can you point out where the Bible says rape is wrong?

2 Samuel 13:12-14 ESV

"She [Tamar] answered him [Amnon], “No, my brother, do not violate me, for such a thing is not done in Israel; do not do this outrageous thing."

The word "rape" might not been used, by from context you can extrapolate that it was 1). a violation, it was seen as 2.) outrageous, and it was also 3.) "not done in Israel" -- meaning it was not legal.

[The Batlord]

Originally Posted by Neapolitan

2 Samuel 13:12-14 ESV

"She [Tamar] answered him [Amnon], “No, my brother, do not violate me, for such a thing is not done in Israel; do not do this outrageous thing."

The word "rape" might not been used, by from context you can extrapolate that it was 1). a violation, it was seen as 2.) outrageous, and it was also 3.) "not done in Israel" -- meaning it was not legal.

Because rape was wrong, or because it made a woman no longer a virgin and therefore unfit for marriage?

[Xurtio]

Originally Posted by Neapolitan

Are you the kind of guy where no means yes?

Seriously? You think this is an effective argument tactic?

[The Batlord]

Originally Posted by Neapolitan

Why are you asking me this? Tamar said "do not violate me." Are you the kind of guy where no means yes?

Because it's a legitimate question. I've never seen anything in the Bible to suggest that God thinks that violating women is immoral in the modern sense, but I've seen plenty in the Old Testament to show that he thinks "unclean" women who have had sex out of wedlock are nasty and wrong and gross regardless of cause.

[kibbeh]

why does god hate sluts?