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10-08-2010, 10:28 PM | #431 (permalink) |
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I think it's less reasonable to separate sexuality from every other part of the human psyche/body which has scientifically been proven to be subjective to mutation.
EDIT: And a compelling example in favour of sexuality having a basis in genetics is Tegan and Sara; identical, homosexual twins. |
10-08-2010, 10:48 PM | #432 (permalink) | |||
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10-08-2010, 10:52 PM | #433 (permalink) |
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Nooooo, science is definitely irrefutable in a number of areas. Like physics. You don't pick a fight with gravity. Unless you're one of those people (scientologists?) who thinks life as we know it is a dream/alien experiment/government coverup.
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10-08-2010, 10:53 PM | #434 (permalink) | |
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EDIT: Also, is roughly 4 percent of the world's population mutated? ...theres no way. Sorry. But I can definitely see 4 percent of the world's population with a skewed mindset. Last edited by Flower Child; 10-08-2010 at 10:59 PM. |
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10-08-2010, 10:58 PM | #435 (permalink) | ||
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1. I said "if". Check that word out. (Used for supposition in logical comparison with the following: 2. Fact: there are indeed mutations in genetic sequences that cause anomalies in humans. You should agree that this is a biological phenomenon, and not a phenomenon that involves being molested or something to that effect, correct? (I'll assume yes here) 3. Because you agree with (2), you agree that IF base sexual preference exists as a biological function (which makes sense, because we probably wouldn't be very prolific as a species if it didn't) that it is entirely POSSIBLE that there could be a functional misstep in the biology of basic sexuality, as referenced in (2). Now, I understand the apprehension in believing something scientific before there is proof, but you only have to use logic. In the scenario where a gay man or woman only becomes that way because he or she was traumatized into it requires FAR more supposition. And since there are many cases of homosexuals who have not been traumatized in any way refutes the entire position all together. Quote:
And just for a side-quest, what do you think it would take for a person to "override" his own biological instincts and start being sexually attracted to the opposite gender? |
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10-08-2010, 11:00 PM | #436 (permalink) | |
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We're not talking about Freaks here... |
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10-08-2010, 11:00 PM | #437 (permalink) | |
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That said, I don't have examples of identical twins who are a straight/homosexual pair. I'm not saying they don't exist, they very well may, but unless you are prepared to offer them, his theory is still valid, because mutations don't occur only at birth. Truth be told, your argument is somewhat annoying, because it consists of refuting points with "Well you can't prove it's true." I invite you to offer some counterpoints of your own. Regardless, I'm not sure people should know the source of it, because imagine the can of worms that would open up in either suggested instance. |
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10-08-2010, 11:12 PM | #438 (permalink) | ||
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Cmon, we're talking about something that affects roughly 4 percent of the population! (NOTE: I said roughly) I'm pretty sure that if scientists could prove people were born gay then it would have been done, or we would have heard something about it. Just like you are assuming......I'm assuming that people are successfully able to smother instinctual feelings (sexuality) as a result to deal with trama, environment, desperation, society, WHATEVER, just like dogs are able to smother their instinct to bite after society affects or 'trains' them otherwise. A mindset changes. The instinct is still there, just smothered. Quote:
I still think nobody is born gay. |
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10-08-2010, 11:20 PM | #440 (permalink) | |
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But anyway I'll rephrase, sexually altered..... do you think roughly 4 percent of our popualtion is REALLY sexually altered in the womb/DNA/post birth? No ****ing way. |
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