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Originally Posted by Violent & Funky
The reason for the second link was this statement:
And this statement was presented as a fact:
While my evidence does not specifically prove it to be factual, it can be inferred to be true or very close to true.
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I understand the reason for the second link. I'm just saying that even if it proves what he was saying, it doesn't mean very much.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Violent & Funky
I also noticed that blacks are heavily over-represented amongst violent crimes, but I think an inference can be made: blacks are victims at roughly the same rate as whites. However, they also commit more violent crimes than whites, and as the table shows most homicides are committed within a race. 90% of black murders had a black victim, and because they commit more murders than any other race, it seems reasonable that they would also make up a high proportion of the victims...
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But they aren't victims at the same rate as whites
at all. According to the table you linked to, blacks are far more likely than whites to be victims of violent crime. 47.8% of all victims of violent crime in this country are black despite the fact that they are only 12.8% percent of the population. While 48.2% of all victims of violent crime are white despite the fact that they make up 79.8% of the population. Doesn't that strike you as a huge disparity?