Quote:
Originally Posted by Frownland
It wasn't established until 69 in Texas v White, so you might be right.
I'll post this quote I saw in my lazy wiki read
"The right of revolution expressed in the Declaration was immediately followed with the observation that long-practised injustice is tolerated until sustained assaults on the rights of the entire people have accumulated enough force to oppress them; then they may defend themselves."
So unless the slaves were revolting I don't think they have a case.
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Where's that? And if the states could rebel from Britain over taxes I think the bar probably isn't all that high tbh.
Edit: Nevermind. Found it. Looks like from my lazy wiki read that the issue wasn't settled until 1869 in
Texas v. White.