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Old 08-13-2017, 11:16 AM   #6369 (permalink)
Frownland
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Originally Posted by The Batlord View Post
Is there something specific there or is this just about the Clause itself? Cause I already know that state law is superseded by federal law, but as far as I know that doesn't specifically address a state's right to actually leave the Union. I highly doubt many or any of the states would have voted to ratify the Constitution if that was clear. As far as I can tell it seems one of those things left either unaddressed or vague at the time of ratification for the sake of not having to have a contentious discussion.
It wasn't established until 69 in Texas v White, so you might be right.

I'll post this quote I saw in my lazy wiki read

"The right of revolution expressed in the Declaration was immediately followed with the observation that long-practised injustice is tolerated until sustained assaults on the rights of the entire people have accumulated enough force to oppress them; then they may defend themselves."

So unless the slaves were revolting I don't think they have a case.
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